GS Paper III – Environment & Ecology
On 29 October 2026, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) released its report Nature's Comeback – Scaling Ecosystem Restoration for People and Planet.
The report highlighted the recovery of the Gangetic River Dolphin in India as an example of successful ecosystem restoration.
(i) Echolocation
The Gangetic River Dolphin has very poor eyesight. It uses ultrasonic sound waves to identify objects, locate prey and navigate underwater.
(ii) Indicator of Freshwater Ecosystem Health
It is considered an indicator species for river ecosystem health. Its presence reflects suitable habitat conditions, food availability and adequate river flow.
(iii) Unique Swimming Ability
Its flexible neck allows it to move its head more freely than most other dolphins. It often swims close to the riverbed while searching for food.
|
Initiative |
Objective |
|
Project Dolphin (2020) |
Conservation of dolphins and their habitats |
|
Conservation Action Plan 2022–2047 |
Long-term conservation strategy |
|
Namami Gange |
Reduction of pollution in the Ganga |
|
National Mission for Clean Ganga |
Restoration of river ecosystems |
|
Ganga Prahari |
Community participation in conservation |
Important Location: Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary, Bihar.
Consider the following statements regarding the Gangetic River Dolphin:
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Mains Question (GS-III)
How is the conservation of the Gangetic River Dolphin important for the restoration of river ecosystems in India? Discuss the major challenges and suggest suitable conservation measures. (250 words)
On 27 October 2026, INS Srishti, a Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV) built for the Indian Navy, was launched at Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL).
Important: Launching a ship and commissioning it into the Navy are two different processes. After launch, the vessel undergoes further testing and trials before commissioning.
INS Srishti is a Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel being developed to strengthen the Indian Navy's maritime surveillance and security capabilities.
It is intended to support:
|
Particulars |
Details |
|
Total vessels |
11 |
|
Contract value |
Approximately ₹9,781 crore |
|
Contract date |
30 March 2023 |
|
Goa Shipyard Limited |
7 vessels |
|
GRSE |
4 vessels |
|
Procurement category |
Buy (Indian-IDDM) |
GRSE stands for Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers.
|
Function |
Significance |
|
Maritime Surveillance |
Monitoring maritime activities |
|
Search and Rescue |
Rescuing people in distress at sea |
|
Anti-Piracy |
Combating maritime piracy |
|
Offshore Asset Protection |
Protecting oil and gas installations |
|
HADR |
Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief |
|
Coastal Security |
Strengthening coastal surveillance |
(i) Maritime Security
India has a long coastline and a vast Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). Modern patrol vessels are essential for monitoring and protecting these maritime areas.
(ii) Security of Maritime Trade
A significant portion of India's international trade is carried through maritime routes. Protecting these routes is essential for economic security.
(iii) Aatmanirbhar Bharat
Indigenous shipbuilding strengthens domestic defence manufacturing, technological capabilities and employment generation.
(iv) Indo-Pacific Strategy
Improved maritime surveillance capabilities will help India contribute to regional maritime cooperation and security.
Consider the following statements regarding the NGOPV Programme:
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Mains Question (GS-III)
Explain the significance of indigenous warship and patrol vessel construction for India's maritime security and self-reliance in the defence sector. (250 words)
GS Paper III – Cyber Security
On 29 October 2026, the Supreme Court made important observations regarding the accountability of banks and financial institutions in cases of Digital Arrest and other cyber financial frauds.
The Court emphasised that where a financial institution's failure to exercise due diligence contributes to cyber fraud, there should be an effective mechanism to compensate affected customers.
The Court also indicated that the proposed RBI KYC Amendment Directions, 2026, should be examined.
Digital Arrest is a cybercrime technique in which criminals impersonate officials of the police, CBI, Enforcement Directorate, judiciary or other government agencies to intimidate individuals.
Criminals generally:
Eventually, victims are manipulated into transferring money to accounts controlled by cybercriminals.
Typical Modus Operandi of a Digital Arrest Scam
The Supreme Court Bench comprised Chief Justice of India Justice Surya Kant, Justice Joymalya Bagchi and Justice V. Mohana.
(i) Accountability of Banks
If a bank or financial institution's failure to exercise due diligence contributes to fraud, the institution should be held accountable.
(ii) Compensation Mechanism
The Court emphasised that an effective compensation mechanism should be developed for victims. Compensation should be linked to the loss suffered where the institution is found responsible.
(iii) Role of RBI
The Court indicated that the proposed RBI KYC Amendment Directions, 2026, should be examined.
(iv) Monitoring Suspicious Transactions
Greater attention should be given to unusual transactions, temporary transaction restrictions where justified, and additional verification mechanisms.
(v) Proposed Timeline
The proposed directions were expected to be notified by 30 November 2026 and implemented by 31 December 2026.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the regulator of India's banking and monetary system.
Its major responsibilities in preventing cyber fraud include:
|
Institution / Mechanism |
Objective |
|
Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) |
Coordination of cybercrime prevention and investigation |
|
National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal |
Online cybercrime reporting |
|
1930 Helpline |
Reporting financial cyber fraud |
|
CERT-In |
Response to cybersecurity incidents |
|
RBI |
Banking and digital payment regulation |
Important Fact: Digital Arrest is not a legally recognised form of arrest. Law enforcement agencies do not digitally arrest individuals through video calls.
Consider the following statements regarding Digital Arrest Scams:
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Mains Question (GS-III)
Examine the growing challenge of Digital Arrest and other financial cybercrimes in India. Analyse the role of banks, RBI and law enforcement agencies in addressing this threat. (250 words)
GS Paper II – International Relations
The Ganga Water Sharing Treaty, signed between India and Bangladesh on 12 December 1996, is due to expire in December 2026.
Its renewal has become an important issue in bilateral relations and regional water diplomacy.
On 9 October 2026, India's Ministry of External Affairs clarified that issues related to Ganga water sharing fall within the framework of the Joint Rivers Commission (JRC).
Bangladesh has also emphasised the need for a renewed agreement before the existing treaty expires.
It is a bilateral agreement between India and Bangladesh for sharing the waters of the Ganga River during the dry season.
Important facts:
The treaty aims to ensure an equitable distribution of Ganga water between the two countries during the lean season.
Farakka Barrage is located on the Ganga River in West Bengal.
Its major objectives include:
Geographical Significance: The flow of the Ganga near Farakka is particularly important for water management between India and Bangladesh.
The treaty primarily deals with water sharing during the dry season from 1 January to 31 May.
It provides for water allocation in 10-day periods based on the availability of water at Farakka.
|
Water Availability |
Allocation |
|
70,000 cusecs or less |
Equal sharing between India and Bangladesh |
|
70,000–75,000 cusecs |
India receives 40,000 cusecs; the remaining water goes to Bangladesh |
|
More than 75,000 cusecs |
India receives 40,000 cusecs; the remaining water goes to Bangladesh |
The treaty also contains special provisions for situations involving exceptionally low water flow.
The Joint Rivers Commission was established in 1972 by India and Bangladesh.
Its objective is to promote cooperation in the management and development of shared river systems.
Major functions:
India and Bangladesh share 54 transboundary rivers.
(i) Neighbourhood Relations
Water resources are an important component of India-Bangladesh bilateral relations.
(ii) Eastern India's Economy
Water management is important for agriculture, industries and the Kolkata Port region in West Bengal.
(iii) Regional Stability
Peaceful resolution of water disputes strengthens regional cooperation.
(iv) Water Security
Changing monsoon patterns and climate change make water availability an increasingly important concern for both countries.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Bangladesh Ganga Water Sharing Treaty:
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four
Answer: (b)
Mains Question (GS-II)
Analyse the challenges associated with the renewal of the India-Bangladesh Ganga Water Sharing Treaty. Suggest measures to strengthen water diplomacy in the context of climate change. (250 words)
GS Paper II – Indian Polity & Constitution
According to reports published on 30 October 2026, the Supreme Court struck down a Karnataka government law that sought to validate appointments made through the 2011 Gazetted Probationers recruitment process.
The recruitment was conducted by the Karnataka Public Service Commission (KPSC), and allegations of corruption and nepotism had emerged during the selection process.
The Supreme Court invalidated the law, directed the termination of appointments made under it and ordered fresh recruitment for the vacant posts.
Understanding the background is essential to understanding the constitutional implications of this judgment.
2011: Recruitment Process
On 3 November 2011, the Karnataka Government issued a recruitment notification for 362 Group A and Group B posts.
Important figures:
2013: Allegations of Corruption
Allegations of irregularities and corruption emerged during the recruitment process.
The state government subsequently ordered a CID investigation.
The investigation revealed allegations of manipulation in the selection process, following which the government cancelled the recruitment.
2018: Supreme Court Proceedings
The matter was challenged before the Karnataka Administrative Tribunal and the High Court.
Eventually, in 2018, the Supreme Court declined to interfere with the decision to cancel the recruitment.
2022: Validation Act Passed
The Karnataka Government enacted the Karnataka Civil Services (Validation of Selection and Appointment of 2011 Batch Gazetted Probationers) Act, 2022.
The objective was to provide legal validity to appointments made through the 2011 selection process.
2026: Supreme Court Judgment
On 29 October 2026, the Supreme Court struck down the 2022 Validation Act.
It directed the termination of appointments and fresh recruitment for the vacant posts.
(i) Legislature Cannot Simply Overrule a Judicial Decision
The legislature is empowered to make laws, but it cannot simply nullify a final judicial decision by passing a law.
(ii) Importance of the Rule of Law
Government recruitment must be based on fairness, transparency and equality of opportunity.
(iii) A Corrupt Recruitment Process Cannot Be Validated Arbitrarily
If a selection process has been invalidated by a court due to corruption, the legislature cannot simply make it valid through a Validation Act without removing the underlying legal defect.
(iv) Direction for Fresh Recruitment
The Supreme Court directed the commencement of fresh recruitment for the vacant Group A and Group B posts.
Candidates who participated in the 2011 recruitment were also provided a one-time relaxation in the upper age limit.
(v) Appointment and Seniority
Successful candidates in the fresh recruitment process would receive seniority from the date of their new appointment.
They would not be entitled to retrospective salary or appointment benefits merely on the basis of their previous appointments.
|
Article |
Subject |
|
Article 14 |
Equality before law |
|
Article 16 |
Equality of opportunity in public employment |
|
Article 32 |
Right to constitutional remedies |
|
Article 136 |
Special Leave Petition |
|
Article 226 |
Writ jurisdiction of High Courts |
|
Articles 245–246 |
Legislative powers of Parliament and State Legislatures |
Important: Articles 14 and 16 provide the constitutional foundation for fairness and equal opportunity in public recruitment.
This case is important for UPSC because it highlights the constitutional relationship between the legislature and the judiciary.
What is Legislative Overruling?
The legislature can enact a new law to remove the legal defect identified by a court in an earlier judgment, provided that the new law:
However, the legislature cannot simply declare a final judicial judgment invalid without removing the underlying legal defect.
What is Judicial Review?
Judicial Review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutional validity of laws enacted by the legislature and actions taken by the executive.
In India, Judicial Review is considered part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
|
Case |
Major Principle |
|
Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) |
Basic Structure Doctrine |
|
Indira Nehru Gandhi Case (1975) |
Democracy and Judicial Review |
|
Minerva Mills Case (1980) |
Limited Amending Power and Judicial Review |
|
I.R. Coelho Case (2007) |
Judicial Review and Basic Structure |
Good Governance: Strengthens transparency and accountability in public recruitment.
Constitutional Balance: Clarifies the relationship between legislative and judicial powers.
Rights of Aspirants: Reinforces the principles of fair selection and equal opportunity in competitive examinations.
Combating Corruption: Discourages attempts to legitimise irregularities in public appointments.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative Overruling:
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Mains Question (GS-II)
How does the separation of powers between the legislature and the judiciary help maintain constitutional balance in Indian democracy? Discuss in the context of the Supreme Court's judgment on the Karnataka Validation Act. (250 words)